The RTI Act FAQs

Quiz Question 1	Long title of the RTI Act talks of how many types of Information Commissions?
Your Answer	B. Two
Correct Answer	B. Two
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 2	The Preamble argues that it is expedient to provide for furnishing certain information to citizens who:
Your Answer	C. Desire to have it.
Correct Answer	C. Desire to have it.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 3	The Preamble seeks to hold Governments and their instrumentalities accountable to:
Your Answer	B. The governed
Correct Answer	B. The governed
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 4	The Preamble to the RTI Act states that transparency of information is vital to:
Your Answer	B. Contain corruption
Correct Answer	B. Contain corruption
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 5	The RTI Act gives right to information to the following:
Your Answer	B. Any citizen
Correct Answer	B. Any citizen
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 6	Right to information’ includes the right to obtaining information in the form of:
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 7	Right to information’ includes the right to taking:
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 8	The definition of "information" under Section 2 (f) includes:
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 9	The DOPT Office Memorandum No.11/2/2008-IR dated 10 July, 2008 on ‘compilation of information’ states as follows:
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 10	The DOPT Office Memorandum No. 1/20/2009-IR dated 23rd June, 2009 clarified that the file noting can be disclosed except file noting containing information exempt from disclosure under the following Section of the RTI Act:
Your Answer	B. Section 8
Correct Answer	B. Section 8
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 11	DOPT advises that the public authority should update information under Section 4 (1) (b):
Your Answer	D. None of the above
Correct Answer	B. As and when any development takes place.
Reason	No Explanation
Quiz Question 12	Section 4 (1) (a) states that a public authority should:
Your Answer	D.  All the above
Correct Answer	D.  All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 13	Section 4 (1) (b) (xi) states that a public authority should publish:
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 14	The obligations of a public authority are basically the obligations of:
Your Answer	D. The head of the authority
Correct Answer	D. The head of the authority
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 15	Under Section 4 (1) (b), the public authority is obliged to update information:
Your Answer	B. Every year
Correct Answer	B. Every year
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 16	For what reasons can a PIO reject an RTI request under the "RTI Act, 2005"?
Your Answer	A. Any reason(s) as specified in S(s). 8 and / or 9 i.e information exempted under the "RTI Act, 2005".
Correct Answer	A. Any reason(s) as specified in S(s). 8 and / or 9 i.e information exempted under the "RTI Act, 2005".
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 17	It is alright for an APIO to decide whether information should be given on an RTI application with or without consulting the PIO concerned.
Your Answer	A. No. Not at all.
Correct Answer	A. No. Not at all.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 18	There is an upper limit for the number of PIOs and APIOs to be appointed by a Public Authority (PA) as per the "RTI Act, 2005".
Your Answer	B. No. There is no such limit, whatsoever, as per the "RTI Act, 2005"
Correct Answer	B. No. There is no such limit, whatsoever, as per the "RTI Act, 2005"
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 19	The "RTI Act, 2005" says that the transfer of applications from a Public Authority to another should
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 20	What is the time limit for a "Public Information Officer" for providing requested information concerning the life and liberty of a person?
Your Answer	C. It has to be provided within 48 hours.
Correct Answer	C. It has to be provided within 48 hours.
Reason	Correct
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Quiz Question 21	APIO has to forward applications for information to:
Your Answer	A. PIO
Correct Answer	A. PIO
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 22	APIO has to forward first appeals to:
Your Answer	C. First Appellate Authority
Correct Answer	C. First Appellate Authority
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 23	Following provision of the RTI Act explains about deemed PIOs:
Your Answer	A.  Section 5(5)
Correct Answer	A.  Section 5(5)
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 24	Following provision of the RTI Act requires communication of ‘the reasons for rejection’ when a PIO rejects a request:
Your Answer	C. Section 7(8)
Correct Answer	C. Section 7(8)
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 25	Transfer of an application should be made as soon as practicable but in no case later than:
Your Answer	B. Five days from the date of receipt of the application.
Correct Answer	B. Five days from the date of receipt of the application.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 26	Following provision of the RTI Act explains about first appeals by requesters:
Your Answer	A. Section 19(1)
Correct Answer	A. Section 19(1)
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 27	Following provision of the RTI Act explains about first appeals by third parties:
Your Answer	A. Section 19(2)
Correct Answer	A. Section 19(2)
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 28	Time limit for disposal of first appeal by the first appellate authority:
Your Answer	B. 30 - 45 days
Correct Answer	B. 30 - 45 days
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 29	Time limit for filing first appeal by a requester under sub-section (1) of Section 19 is:
Your Answer	B. 30 days from the receipt of PIO’s decision
Correct Answer	B. 30 days from the receipt of PIO’s decision
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 30	What is the time limit for filing first appeals by the third party under Section 19(2):
Your Answer	B. Within 30 days from the date of PIO`s order
Correct Answer	B. Within 30 days from the date of PIO`s order
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 31	Exemptions under the RTI Act can be divided into how many categories?
Your Answer	A. Three categories
Correct Answer	B. Two categories
Reason	No Explanation
Quiz Question 32	Preamble to the Right to Information Act talks of some ‘other public interests’ They include the following
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 33	‘Reasonable restrictions’ on the right to freedom of speech and expression imposed by the Constitution include the following
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 34	The RTI Act, through section 24, partially excludes the following from the ambit of the Act:
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 35	Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India imposes ‘Reasonable restrictions’ on the right to freedom of speech and expression
Your Answer	A. Article 19(2)
Correct Answer	A. Article 19(2)
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 36	According to Section 7 (1) of the RTI Act, PIOs can only reject a request under the following provisions
Your Answer	A. Sections 8 and 9 of the RTI Act
Correct Answer	A. Sections 8 and 9 of the RTI Act
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 37	According to Section 7 (1) of the RTI Act, the following clauses of Section 8(1) contain perpetual exemptions
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 38	According to Section 7 (8) of the RTI Act, the PIO, when rejecting a request, has to communicate to the person making the request
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 39	Examples of fiduciary relationships
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 40	Section 8(3) imposes certain time limit on exemptions. Clauses (b), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h) and (j) of Section 8(1) are time limited exemptions, which are no longer valid exemptions after
Your Answer	A. 20 years from the date of the record
Correct Answer	A. 20 years from the date of the record
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 41	According to Section 8 (1) (j) the following officer may disclose the exempt information in larger public interest
Your Answer	B. Appellate authority
Correct Answer	C. Both of the above
Reason	No Explanation
Quiz Question 42	Section 8 (1) (j) is
Your Answer	B. A qualified exemption
Correct Answer	B. A qualified exemption
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 43	Which Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights recognizes privacy as a human right?
Your Answer	A. Article 12
Correct Answer	A. Article 12
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 44	Which clause under Section 8 (1) of the RTI Act talks of invasion of the privacy?
Your Answer	C. Clause (j)
Correct Answer	C. Clause (j)
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 45	Which section of the Indian Penal Code prohibits disclosure of identity of a victim of sexual offence?
Your Answer	A. Section 228A
Correct Answer	A. Section 228A
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 46	The document, ‘Ten Principles on the Right to Know’, argues that there is high public interest in disclosure of information related to threats to the following
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 47	Which NGO successfully won an appeal for disclosure of Income Tax Returns filed by political parties in 2008?
Your Answer	A. Association for Democratic Reforms
Correct Answer	A. Association for Democratic Reforms
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 48	Which Section of the RTI Act defines ‘public interest’’?
Your Answer	D. None of the above
Correct Answer	D. None of the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 49	Who formulated ‘Ten Principles on the Right to Know’?
Your Answer	B. Open Society Justice Initiative
Correct Answer	B. Open Society Justice Initiative
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 50	Who formulated “The Public’s Right to Know: Principles on Freedom of Information”?
Your Answer	A.  ARTICLE 19
Correct Answer	A.  ARTICLE 19
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 51	Excluded organisations are required to take approval for disclosure of information from
Your Answer	A. Information Commission
Correct Answer	A. Information Commission
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 52	How many amendments were made to the Second Schedule as on 31 August 2012?
Your Answer	B. Four amendments
Correct Answer	B. Four amendments
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 53	How many Intelligence and Security Organisations are there in the Second Schedule as on 31 August 2012?
Your Answer	B. 25
Correct Answer	B. 25
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 54	Maximum time limit for disclosure of information by excluded organisations
Your Answer	B. 45 days from the date of the receipt of request
Correct Answer	B. 45 days from the date of the receipt of request
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 55	Which Section of the RTI Act explains about excluded organisations?
Your Answer	C. Section 24
Correct Answer	C. Section 24
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 56	After the enactment of the "RTI Act, 2005", what is the status of the "Freedom of Information Act, 2002"?
Your Answer	C. It has been repealed.
Correct Answer	C. It has been repealed.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 57	Consider the following statements about "Bar on jurisdiction of courts" vis-avis the "RTI Act, 2005". i) No court shall entertain any suit, application or other proceeding in respect of any order made under this Act. ii) No such order shall be called in question otherwise than by way of an appeal under this Act. Which of these statements is true?
Your Answer	D. Both i) & ii) are true.
Correct Answer	D. Both i) & ii) are true.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 58	The "RTI Act, 2005" will supersede
Your Answer	D. All a, b & c.
Correct Answer	D. All a, b & c.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 59	What is the time span mentioned in the "RTI Act, 2005" for making orders for removing difficulties in giving effect to the provisions of the "RTI Act, 2005"?
Your Answer	A. 2 years from the commencement of the Act.
Correct Answer	A. 2 years from the commencement of the Act.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 60	Who has the power to remove the difficulties arising in giving effect to the provisions of the "RTI Act, 2005"?
Your Answer	B. The Central Government.
Correct Answer	B. The Central Government.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 61	According to Rule 3 of the Right to Information Rules, 2012, an application for information under the RTI Act should be accompanied by a fee of:
Your Answer	A. 10
Correct Answer	A. 10
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 62	The Right to Information Rules, 2012 mandate the application, excluding any annexures and addresses of the PIO, should not contain more than:
Your Answer	A. 500 words
Correct Answer	A. 500 words
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 63	The Right to Information Rules, 2012 supersede the following Rules
Your Answer	C. Both of the above
Correct Answer	C. Both of the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 64	Under the Right to Information Rules, 2012, fee for inspection of records, for each subsequent hour of inspection:
Your Answer	C. 5
Correct Answer	C. 5
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 65	Under the Right to Information Rules, 2012, fee for providing information, for a Diskette or floppy:
Your Answer	B. 50
Correct Answer	B. 50
Reason	Correct
Chapter 14 Employees Right To Information  Completed
Quiz Question 66	The “right to information and consultation of workers” is claimed as a social value in:
Your Answer	C. Europe
Correct Answer	C. Europe
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 67	Which article of the Charter of Fundamental Rights of the European Union recognizes “right to information and consultation of workers” as a Fundamental right?
Your Answer	B. Article 27
Correct Answer	B. Article 27
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 68	Which provision of the RTI Act mandates all the public authorities to provide reasons for administrative decisions taken by them?
Your Answer	B. Section 4 (1) (d)
Correct Answer	B. Section 4 (1) (d)
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 69	Who ruled that employees are entitled to access transfer guidelines pertaining to clerical staff?
Your Answer	C. Kerala High Court
Correct Answer	C. Kerala High Court
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 70	Who ruled that employees are entitled to have access to their Annual Confidential Reports?
Your Answer	A. The Supreme Court
Correct Answer	A. The Supreme Court
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 71	In case of rejection of the request, onus to prove that a denial of a request was justified shall be on:
Your Answer	A. The PIO, who denied the request.
Correct Answer	A. The PIO, who denied the request.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 72	What is the time limit for the third party to make a submission in writing or orally?
Your Answer	B. 10 days
Correct Answer	B. 10 days
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 73	Which provision of the RTI Act provides for partial disclosure of information?
Your Answer	C. Section 10
Correct Answer	C. Section 10
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 74	Which provision of the RTI Act provides for third party appeal?
Your Answer	C. Section 19(2)
Correct Answer	C. Section 19(2)
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 75	Which provision of the RTI Act requires a ‘communication of rejection to the requester’ to be sent by the PIO in case of rejection of the request?
Your Answer	B. Section 7(8)
Correct Answer	B. Section 7(8)
Reason	Correct

THE RTI ACT 2005

Quiz Question 1	RTI is closely aligned with the `Fundamental Right` in the `Constitution of India` of
Your Answer	B. Right to Freedom (of Speech and Expression)`
Correct Answer	B. Right to Freedom (of Speech and Expression)`
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 2	The first State to introduce the a law on RTI was
Your Answer	A. Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer	A. Tamil Nadu
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 3	The `Preamble` of the `RTI Act, 2005` says that "informed citizenry and transparency of information" are vital to
Your Answer	A. functioning of democracy.
Correct Answer	D. All the above.
Reason	Incorrect. The correct answer is d. - All the above.
Quiz Question 4	Which organisation is known to have taken up the first grassroots initiative for people`s RTI?
Your Answer	C. Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sanghatan` (MKSS)
Correct Answer	C. Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sanghatan` (MKSS)
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 5	Applications for information - under the `RTI Act, 2005` - can also be submitted to completely privately owned organisations.
Your Answer	A. False.
Correct Answer	A. False.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 6	Is the `RTI Act, 2005` applicable to the Union Territories?
Your Answer	D. Yes, without any exceptions or caveats.
Correct Answer	D. Yes, without any exceptions or caveats.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 7	Right to information is available under the `Right to Information Act, 2005`
Your Answer	D. to all Indian citizens.
Correct Answer	D. to all Indian citizens.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 8	Who receives applications under the `RTI Act, 2005`?
Your Answer	D. Only a. and b.
Correct Answer	D. Only a. and b.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 9	One of the following about the Annual Report of an Information Commission is true.Identify it.
Your Answer	B. An Information Commission should forward a copy of its "Annual Report" to the Appropriate Government concerned.
Correct Answer	B. An Information Commission should forward a copy of its "Annual Report" to the Appropriate Government concerned.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 10	Rules can be made by Appropriate Governments or Competent Authorities by notifying the rules: i) in the Official Gazette. ii) by publishing them on the website of the Appropriate Government. iii) by publishing them on the websites of Information Commissions - as applicable.
Your Answer	A. i) as per the `RTI Act, 2005`
Correct Answer	A. i) as per the `RTI Act, 2005`
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 11	The `RTI Act, 2005` says that the transfer of applications from a Public Authority to another should
Your Answer	D. All the above
Correct Answer	D. All the above
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 12	Which of the following statements about the "Annual Reports" of Information Commissions are true? i) They should state the number of requests made to each Public Authority. ii) The number of decisions where applicants were not allowed access to documents. iii) the provisions invoked and the number of times they were invoked. iv) the amount of charges collected by each Public Authority under this Act.
Your Answer	C. All i), ii), iii) & iv).
Correct Answer	C. All i), ii), iii) & iv).
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 13	According to the `RTI Act, 2005`, as far as exempted organisations are concerned, the exemption applies to i) certain organisations of the Central Government as listed in the 2nd Schedule and to the information submitted by these organisations to this Government. ii) certain organisations of the State Governments as may be notified by them in the Official Gazette, but NOT to the information furnished by these organisations to the respective State Governments.
Your Answer	C. Both i) & ii) are true.
Correct Answer	C. Both i) & ii) are true.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 14	Of the following, information not exempted from disclosure is:
Your Answer	C. Information which cannot be denied to the Parliament or a State Legislature.
Correct Answer	C. Information which cannot be denied to the Parliament or a State Legislature.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 15	Public Interest test would apply to i) copyright subsisting in a person other than the State. ii) information received in confidence from foreign government. iii) trade or commercial secrets protected by law while disclosing third party information.
Your Answer	B. Only ii)
Correct Answer	B. Only ii)
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 16	The `RTI Act, 2005` will supersede
Your Answer	D. All a, b & c.
Correct Answer	D. All a, b & c.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 17	An RTI application can be sent
Your Answer	D. Through any of these means.
Correct Answer	D. Through any of these means.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 18	Consider the following statements pertainng to a `Third Party` under the `RTI Act, 2005`: i) A `Third Party` has no say whatsoever in a PIO`s decision to disclose information about it. ii) A `Third Party` has no right of first appeal after the lapse of 30 days after receiving the order of a PIOs decision to disclose information related to it. iii) A PIO has to apply the "Public Interest Test" before deciding to give / not to give information about a `Third Party`, if the latter has requested that the information should not be disclosed. Which of these statements are true?
Your Answer	C. ii) & iii)
Correct Answer	C. ii) & iii)
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 19	Which of the following are true?
Your Answer	A. A PIO has to offer reasonable assistance to an applicant to reduce an oral application into writing.
Correct Answer	D. All are true.
Reason	Incorrect. The answer is d. - All are true.
Quiz Question 20	Which of the following statements about further fees to be charged under the `RTI Act, 2005` are true? i) The fees to be charged should be reasonable. ii) Details of such fees should be provided alongwith the caluclations of the fees to be paid. iii) An applicant has the right to appeal the further fees charged and should be provided all information about this. iv) It is up to the applicant whether to pay fees or not, but information has to be provided in any case. v) Information provided after the specified time limits should be provided free of cost.
Your Answer	C. Only i), ii), iii) & v) are true.
Correct Answer	C. Only i), ii), iii) & v) are true.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 21	(Second) Appeals on information pertaining to a person`s life and liberty should be decided by Information Commissions within
Your Answer	D. No such time limit has been specified.
Correct Answer	D. No such time limit has been specified.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 22	There could be a time limit for deciding appeals of a `Third Party` by an Information Commission
Your Answer	D. There is no such provision for time limit for hearing third party`s appeals at all in the `RTI Act, 2005`.
Correct Answer	D. There is no such provision for time limit for hearing third party`s appeals at all in the `RTI Act, 2005`.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 23	The time limit specified in the `RTI Act, 2005` for the Central / State Information Commissions to decide on (second) appeals is
Your Answer	C. No such time limit has been specified.
Correct Answer	C. No such time limit has been specified.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 24	Would the action in good faith provision be applicable if a PIO unknowingly discloses exempted information.
Your Answer	A. Yes. It applies to any action of any official under the `RTI Act` or any rule thereunder.
Correct Answer	A. Yes. It applies to any action of any official under the `RTI Act` or any rule thereunder.
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 25	The grounds for a complaint could be i) being asked to pay an unreasonablevamount of fee. ii) being given incomplete or false information. iii) any matter relating to requesting or obtaining access to records.
Your Answer	A. All i), ii) & iii).
Correct Answer	A. All i), ii) & iii).
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 26	The grounds for a complaint could be i) inability to submit a request to the PIO. ii) refusal to access information under the RTI Act. iii) not getting a response to a request for information.
Your Answer	D. All i), ii) & iii).
Correct Answer	D. All i), ii) & iii).
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 27	While inquiring into a complaint, Information Commissions have the power to i) receive evidence on affidavit. ii) requisition record or copies thereof from any court or office. iii) issue summons for examination of witnesses or documents.
Your Answer	B. All i), ii) & iii).
Correct Answer	B. All i), ii) & iii).
Reason	Correct
Quiz Question 28	While inquiring into a complaint, Information Commissions have the power to i) summon and enforce attendance of persons. ii) compel them to give evidence on oath and produce documents or things. iii) Require discovery and inspection of documents.
Your Answer	C. All i), ii) & iii).
Correct Answer	C. All i), ii) & iii).
Reason	Correct

CBSE PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENTS (PSA)

Reasoning Ability

1.

BE' is related to 'GJ' in the same way as 'PS' is related to

1) UY

2) UX

3) UZ

4) VY

5) None of these

Ans. 1 (2)

2.

Among P, Q, R, S and T, each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P

and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored

the highest?

1) P

2) T

3) R

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans. 2 (3)

3.

Pointing to a gir l, Nidhi said, 'She is the daughter of my grandmother 's only child.' How is the

girl related to Nidhi?

1) Sister

2) Self

3) Cousin sister

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.3 (4)

4.

In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3$ and NEWS is written as $1@8. How is SOME

written in that code?

1) 8%o51

2) 85%8

3) 8@51

4) 8%31

5) None of these

Ans.4 (1)

5.

In a certain code language 'how many books' is written as 'sa da na' and 'many more days' is

written as 'ka pa da'. How is 'books' written in that code language?

1) sa

2) na

3) sa or na

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.5 (3)

6.

In a certain code MAJORITY is written as 'PKBNXSHQ'. How is SANCTION written in that

code?

1) TBODMNHS

2) DOBTMNHS

3) TBODSHNM

4) DOBTOPJU

5) None of these

Ans.6 (2)

7.

The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged,

similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of

the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the r earrangement?

1) 1

2) 5

3) 7

4) 9

5) None of these

Ans.7 (1)

8.

How many such pair s of letters are there in the word OROANISED each of which has as

many letters   between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Ans. 8 (3)

9.

How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter

only once in each word?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Ans. 9 (2)

10.

The position of how many digits in the number 8247531 will remain unchanged after the

digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Ans.10 (3)

11.

In a row of twenty- five children facing North, W is fifth to the r ight of R, who is sixteenth

from the right end of the row. What is W's position fr om the right end of the row?

1) Eleventh

2) Tenth

3) Twelfth

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.11 (1)

Directions (Q. 12-14):

Study the following, infor mation carefully and answer the questions,

which follow:

Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organised in a week from Monday to Saturday with one play

each day and no play was organised on one of these days. Play D was organised before Thursday

but after Monday. Play E was organised on Saturday. Play C was not organised on the first day.

Play B was organised on the next day on which play C was organised. Play A was or ganised on

Tuesday.

12.

On which day was play B organised?

1) Thursday

2) Friday

3) Wednesday

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.12 (2)

13.

On which day was no play organised?

1) Monday

2) Wednesday

3) Thursday

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.13 (1)

14.

Which play was organised on Wednesday?

1) A

2) C

3) D

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.14 (3)

15.

If ‘‚’ means '+'; 'x' means '-',; '+' means 'x’ and '-' means '÷', then 24 -4÷6 x3+4 =?

1) 36

2) 24

3) 8

4) 4

5) None of these

Ans.15 (5)

16.

What should come next in the following number series? 98761234598712345987123498

1) 7

2) 1

3) 2

4) 5

5) None of these

Ans.16 (2)

17.

Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English

alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so

obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the

right end after the rearrangement?

1) Q

2) K

3) P

4) B

5) None of these

Ans.17 (3)

18.

Meena correctly remembers that her father 's birthday is after eighteenth May but before

twentysecond May. Her brother  correctly remembers that their father's

Birthday is before twenty- fourth May but after Twentieth May. On which date in May was

definitely their father's birthday?

1) Twentieth

2) Nineteenth

3) Eighteenth

4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Ans.18 (5)

Directions (Q. 19-20):

Study the following

infor mation and answer the questions given below:

(i) 'P÷ Q' means 'P is sister of Q'.

(ii) 'P x Q' means 'P is brother of Q'.

(iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is mother of Q'.

(iv) 'P + Q' means 'P is father of Q'.

19.

Which of the following means 'M is maternal uncle of  T?

1) M÷K+T

2) M x K+T

3) M x K-T

4) M ÷ K - T

5) None of these

Ans.19 (4)

20.

Which of the following means 'H is paternal grandfather of T?

1) H +J+T

2) T x K + H

3) H +J x T

4) H - J + T

5) None of these

Ans.20 (1)

Directions (Q. 21-25):

Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given

below:

832    965     748     259     614

21.

Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number?

1) 2

2) 5

3) 8

4) 9

5) 4

Ans. 21 (5)

22.

Which .of the following is the sum of the first' and the second digits of the highest number?

1) 11

2) 15

3) 10

4) 7

5) None of these

Ans.22 (2)

23.

If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged,

which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number?

1) 5

2) 1

3) 6

4) 4

5) 3

Ans.23 (1)

24.

If the positions of the fir st and the second digits of each of the number s are interchanged,

which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number ?

1) 8

2) 6

3) 7

4) 5

5) None of these

Ans.24 (5)

25.

Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third

highest number?

1) 6

2) 4

3) 1

4) 7

5) None of these

Ans.25 (3)

Directions (Q. 26-31): In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three

conclusions numbered I, II and m. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they

seem to be at var iance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide

which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding

commonly known facts.

26.

Statements:All stones ar e poles.

All poles are desks.

Some desks are nets.

All nets are days.

Conclusions:     I. Some nets are stones.

II.Some desks are stones.

III.Some days ar e desks.

1) Only I and II follow

2) Only I and III follow

3) Only II and III follow

4) All I, II and III follow

5) None of these

Ans.26 (3)

27.

Statements:  Some months are weeks.

Some weeks are years.

All years are buses.

All buses are trains.

Conclusions:  I. Some trains are weeks.

II. Some buses are weeks.

III.Some trains are months.

1) Only I and II follow

2) Only II and III follow

3) Only I and III follow

4) All, I, II and III follow

5) None of these

Ans.27 (1)

28.

Statements:  Some stations are r ails.

All rails are rivers.

All rivers are papers.

Some papers are cards.

Conclusions:   I. Some cards are stations.

II.Some rivers are stations.

III. Some cards are rivers.

1) Norte follows

2) Only I follows

3) Only II follows

4) Only III follows

5) Only II and III follow

Ans.28 (3)

29. Statements: All windows are roofs.

All roofs are glasses.

Some glasses ar e plates.

Some plates ar e car pets.

Conclusions:      I. Some plates are windows.

II. Some glasses ar e windows.

III. Some carpets are roofs.

1) None follows

2) Only I follows

3) Only II follows

4) Only III follows

5) Only I and II follow

Ans.29 (3)

30.

Statements:  All trees are jungles.

All jungles are houses.

All houses are buildings.

All buildings are villages.

Conclusions: I . Some villages are houses.

II. Some buildings are jungles.

III. Some houses are trees.

1) Only I and II follow

2) Only II and III follow

3) Only I and III follow

4) All I, II and III follow

5) None of these

Ans.30 (4)

31.

Statements: Some books are calendars.

No calendar is a paper.

All papers are pencils.

Some pencils are chairs.

Conclusions:  I. Some chairs are books.

II. No chair is a book.

III. Some pencils are calendars.

1) None follows

2) Only either I or II follows

3) Only either I or II and III follow

4) Only III follows

5) Only n follows

Ans.31 (2)

Directions (Q. 32-37): Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below:

M5%PU2A$43ZEK 19QRI @D7F88WN6#V©J*Y

32.

Which of the following is the ninth to the r ight of the seventeenth from the right end of the

above arrangement?

1) N

2) $

3)4

4) W

5) None of these

Ans.32 (1)

33.

Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above

arrangement?

1) U

2) D

3) E

4) ©

5) None of these

Ans.33 (5)

34.

How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately

preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Ans.34 (3)

35.

How many such consonants ar e there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately

followed by a symbol but not immediately pr eceded by a number?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Ans.35 (3)

36.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above

arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1) P5A

2) 4AE

3) QIK

4) F8@

5) VN*

Ans.36 (5)

37.

If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement ar e dropped, which of the

following will be the twelfth from the left end?

1) E

2) K

3) Z

4) D

5) None of these

Ans.37 (5)

Directions (Q. 38-43):

In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by

four combinations of letters numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the

combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding

system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer.

If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark (5), ie 'None

of these' , as your answer. Digit/Symbol : 5 @ 3 © 9 8 % 8 1 4 2 $ # 7 6 * Letter Code : P I MAE

G F J H B D. N R Q T U .

Conditions: (i) If the first unit is a symbol and the last unit is an even digit both are to be coded

as the code for the even digit.

(ii)  If the first unit is all even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be

interchanged.

(iii)  If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both at e 1:0 be coded as the code

for the symbol.

(iv) If both the fir st and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z.

38.

9@374%

1) EIMQBF

2) FBQMIE

3) ZIMQBZ

4) FIMQBF

5) None of these

Ans.38 (4)

39.

29©$#1

1) HEANRD

2) DEANRH

3) DEANRD

4) HEANRH

5) None of these

Ans.39 (1)

40.

*479@©

1) UBQEIA

2) ZBQEIA

3) ZBQEIZ

4) ABQEIU

5) None of these

Ans.40 (3)

41.

% 286$3

1) FDGTNF

2) FDGTNM

3) FGDTNM

4) WGTNZ

5) None of these

Ans.41 (2)

42.

54#*@6

1) PBURIT

2) PBRUIP

3) TBRUIP

4) TBRUIT

5) None of these

Ans.42 (5)

43.

$63©94

1) NTMAEN

2) BTMAEB

3) ZTMAEB

4) NTMAEB

5) None of these

Ans.43 (2)

Directions (Q. 44-48): Study the following infor mation carefully and answer the questions given

below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is second to the right of

A and third to the left of C. B is second to the left of C and fourth to the right of H. D is second

to the right of G

44.

Who is to the immediate left of D?

1) H

2) C

3) G

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.44 (2)

45.

Who is second to the right of E?

1) B

2) G

3) H

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.45 (1)

46.

Who is third to the left of B?

1) E

2) H

3) F

4) Data inadequate

5) None of these

Ans.46 (5)

47.

What is the position of G with respect to A?

1) Third to the left

2) Third to the right

3) Fifth to the left

4) Fourth to the right

5) Fifth to the right

Ans.47 (4)

48.

In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the

second persons?

1) BGC

2) EFB

3) DAH

4) AEF

5) GCD

Ans.48 (3)

Directions (Q. 49-54): In the following questions, the  symbols @, ©, $, % and # are used with

the following meaning as illustr ated below:

'P $ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.

'P@Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.

'P # Q' means' P is not smaller than Q'.

'P © Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.

'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greeter than Q'.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be tr ue, find which of

the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer

accordingly.

49.

Statements:   D # K K @ T, T $ M,. M '% .T

Conclusions:  I. J @ T

II. J%T

III. D@T

1) Only I is true

2) Only II is tr ue

3) Only either I or II is true

4) Only IV is true

5) Only either I or II and III are tr ue

Ans.49 (5)

50.

Statements: R@N,N©D, O$J,      J#B

Conclusions: I. R @ J

II. J@N

III. B@D

1) None is true

2) Only I is true

3) Only II is tr ue

4) Only III is true

5) Only I and III are true

Ans.50 (3)

51.

Statements: W © B, B % V, V $ R, R@K

Conclusions: I . K © B

II. R#B

III.V@W

1) Only I and II are true

2) Only I and III are true

3) Only II and III are true

4) AII I, II and III are true

5) None of these

Ans.51 (3)

52.

Statements:   H $ M, M # T, T @ D, D © R

Conclusions: I . D © M

II. R@M

III. H$T

1) None is true

2) Only I is true

3) Only II is tr ue

4) Only III is true

5) Only I and II are true

Ans.52 (2)

53.

Statements: B % J, J @ K, K © T, T $ F

Conclusions: I . F @ K

II. B@K

III.B@F

1) Only I and II are true

2) Only I and III are true

3) Only II and III are true

4) All I, II and III are true

5) None of these

Ans.53 (1)

54.

Statements: F # B, B $ M, M @ K, J< e N

Conclusions: I . N @ M

II. F$M

III. K©B

1) Only I is true

2) Only II is tr ue

3) Only III is true

4) Only II and III are true

5) None is true

Ans.54 (5)

Directions (55-60):

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an. input line of words and numbers

rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of

input and rearrangement.

Input       : sale data 1823 for 95 then 38

Step I       : data sale 1823 for 95 then 38

Step I I     : data 95 sale 18 23 for then 38

Step I II     : data 95 for sale 18 23 then 38

Step I V     : data 95 for 38 sale 18 23 then

Step V      : data 95 for 38 sale 23 18 then

Step VI     : data 95 for 38 sale 23 then 18

and step VI is the last step of the r earrangement of the above input.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the

appropriate step for the given input.

55.

Input: year 39 stake47 house full 94 55 How many steps will be required to complete the

rearrangement?

1) Five

2) Six

3) Four

4) Seven

5) None of these

Ans.55 (2)

56.

Step I I of an input is: car 83 lost ever 324674 now How many more steps will be required to

complete the rearr angement?

1) Three

2) Four

3) Five

4) Six

5) None of these

Ans.56 (2)

57.

Step I II of an input is : and 79 code 27 18 new goal 34 Which of the following will definitely

be the input?

1) code and 79 27 18 new goal 34

2) code 27 18 new goal 34 and 79

3) code 27 and 1879 new goal 34

4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

Ans.57 (4)

58.

Input: water full never 35 78 16 height 28 Which of the following steps will be the last?

1) VI

2) VII

3) VIII

4) IX

5) None of these

Ans.58 (1)

59.

Step I I of an input is: high 69 store pay 36 43 15 there Which of the following will be step

VI?

1) high 69 pay 43 store 36 there 15

2) high 69 pay 43 store 36 15 there

3) high 69 pay 36 43 store 15 there

4) There will be no such step

5) None of these

Ans.59 (4)

60.

Input: train more 2953 fast gear 3784 Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

1) IX

2) VIII

3) VII

4) VI

5) None of these

Ans.60 (5)

Directions (Q. 61-70): Study the following infor mation carefully and answer the questions given

below:

Following are the conditions for selecting Assistant General Manager -HR in an organisation.

The candidate must

(i) be at least 40 years and not more than 50 years old as on 01-05- 2010.

(ii) be postgraduate in Personnel

Management /HR with at least 60 per cent marks.

(iii) have post-qualification work experience of at least fifteen years out of which at least five

years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation.

(iv) have successfully implemented HR-System in his/ her or ganisation sometime during the past

three years.

(v) have secured at least 45 per cent mar ks in the selection process.

In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT at

(A)  (ii) above but has secured at least 50 per cent marks in postgraduation and at least 65 per

cent mar ks in the selection process, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

(B) (iii) above but has at least twelve years' post qualificat ion work experience out of which at

least eight years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation, the case is to be referred to

Chair man.

In each question below details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the cour ses of

action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub- conditions given above and

mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other

than the infor mation provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01-

0572010.

Mark answer 1) if the candidate is to be selected.

Mark answer 2) if the candidate is not to be selected.

Mark answer 3) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.

Mark answer 4) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

Mark answer 5) if the case is to be referred to Chairman.

61.

Pranab Ghosh was born on 8th March 1968. He has been working for the past eighteen years

in an organisation out of which last seven years as Senior Manager -HR after completing his

postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He had successfully implemented HR-System last

year in his organisation. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the selection process.

62.

Sheetal Jha has been working in an or ganisation for the past twenty years out of which ten

years as Senior Manager-HR after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with

70 per cent marks. She was born on 2nd December 1965. She has secured 45 percent mar ks in

the selection process.

63.

Prabir Sengupta was born on 8th May 1963. He has secured 65 percent marks in the selection

process. He has been working for the past fifteen years in an organisation, out of which twelve

years as Senior Manager HR, after completing his post graduation in HR with 55 per cent marks.

He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the last two years.

64.

Shailesh Kumar has been working in an organisation for the past thirteen years, out of which

nine years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent

marks. He was born on 15th September 1968. He has secured 48 per cent marks in the selection

process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organization two years back.

65.

Navin Chopra was born on 12th June 1967. He has been working for the past sixteen year s,

out of which seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his post-graduation in

Personnel Management with 75 per cent marks. He has secured 44 per cent marks in the

selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation last year .

66.

Meera Kulkarni has been working for the past seventeen years, out of which eight years as

Senior Manager-HR, after completing her  postgraduation in Personnel Management with 66 per

cent mar ks. She has successfully implemented HR-System in her organisation dur ing the last two

years. She has secured 49 per cent marks in the selection process. She was born on 14th

December 1971.

67.

Akash Shastri was born on 12th Apr il 1967. He has been. wor king for the past sixteen years,

out of which six years as Senior Manager -HR, in an organisation after completing his

postgraduation in HR with 58 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System in

his organization last year. He has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection process.

68.

Shekhar Jena has been working for the past fifteen years, out of which last seven year s as

Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per

cent mar ks. He has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 16th.

69.

Sunetra Govil was born on 5th Apr il 1964. She has been wor king for the past seventeen

years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager -HR, in an or ganisation. She has secured 48 per

cent mar ks in the selection process. She has also secur ed 69 per cent mar ks in her post-

graduation in Per sonnel Management. She successfully implemented HR-System in her

organisation last year.

70.

Mohit Saxena was born on 27th July 1963. He has been working for the past thir teen years,

out of which nine years as Senior Manager -HR, after completing his post- gr aduation in HR with

67 per cent marks. He has secured 49 per cent marks in the Selection process. He has

successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the past three years.

Answers :(Q.61- 70)

Q.No.  Person  (i) (ii)/(A) (iii)/(B) (iv) ( V) Ans

61.  Pranab  v  v  v   v  v  1

62.  Sheetal  v  v  v     v  3

63.  Prabir  v  (v)   v  v  v  4

64.  Shailesh v  v  (v)  v  v  5

65.  Navin  v  v  v  v  ×  2

66.  Meera

×

v  v  v  v  2

67.  Akash  v  (v)   v  v  v  4

68.  Shekhar  v  v  v  v  v  1

69.  Sunetra  v  v     v  v  3

70.  Mohit  v  v  (v)  v  v  5

Directions (Q. 71-75):

Below in each question ar e given two statements (A) and (B). These

statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a

common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the

statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship

between these two statements.

Mark answer 1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.

Mark answer 2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.

Mark answer 3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.

Mark answer 4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.

Mark answer 5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

71.

(A) The Govt has marginally increased the procurement price of wheat for the current crop.

(B) The current wheat crop is expected to be twenty per cent more than the previous wheat crop.

Ans.71 (1)

72.

(A) The municipal authority demolished the tea stall located on the footpath on the busy

road.

(B) A large number of people have been taking their evening tea at the tea stall located on the

footpath on the main r oad, blocking pedestrian movement.

Ans.72 (2)

73.

(A) Majority of the students left the local school as the school building was in a dilapidated

condition.

(B) The school authority decided to close down the school immediately and shift the remaining

students to a make-shift school.

Ans.73 (1)

74.

(A) The braking system of the tourist bus car rying 40 passengers failed while negotiating a

stiff climb on a hilly road.

(B) The tourist bus fell into the gorge killing at least ten passengers and seriously injuring all the

remaining.

Ans.74 (1)

75.

(A) The state govt has decided to boost English language education in all the schools from

the next academic year.

(B) The level of English language of the school students of the State is comparatively lower than

that of the neighbouring states.